Read my statement again. I said percentage of pregnancies that end in abortion. So no, his statement is still invalid.<quoted text>You're leaving out some germain factors e.g.Given a country with no restrictions:
1) Is that country (society)apt to be judgemental of unwed mothers? I would guess not.
2) Is that society more apt to accept birth control paraphanalia as a normal common Medical expense?
My guess is that society would.
So my guess is that demand for abortion is less but per capita pregnancy is less. So his statistic may be valid.
Especially given the fact that some countries with relatively high abortion rates (percent of abortion per pregnancy) also tend tone more restrictive in their policies.