1st black female rabbi spent years searching

Eric wrote:

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Conversion of Abraham

HughBe wrote:

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Conversion from what?

HughBe wrote:

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Conversion from what?

Eric wrote:

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Paganism to being the founder of the religion that became Judaism. Mohammed never converted to the religion that became Judaism, nor did he embrace the tenets of that religion. He was not "of our nation". Nor, if you would have asked him or his supporters--either historical or current--did he become of the same nation as those who are currently known as Jews. His theology was that he replaced the religion that was then known as Judaism. He was therefore not of our nation.

Swarm wrote:

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Abraham converted from fiction to non-fiction.
Unfortunately, the religious that committed his conversion forgot to erase the part of the story where he saw and spoke with YHWH face to face, and shared food with him, while his angels of destrution went to Sodom and Gomorrah.
Hey, so you think we can still include some of the Native American legends into the Genesis? Spiderwoman, and the twins are very compelling tales.

HughBe wrote:

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You said “I believe that Noah is "of our nation" because Noah believed in HaShem and only in HaShem.”
Based on this principle, Mohammad belongs to “our nation”.
You also said “Now, what was Mohammed before his revelation? I believe he was a pagan. Therefore, unlike Noah, he was not "of our nation".“”
But you said that “the founder of the religion that became Judaism” Abraham converted from “Paganism” given that this is so then Abraham was just like Mohammad in that both were pagans and both converted to worshipping HaShem and therefore Mohammad is a part of “our nation”.
Did Noah embrace the tenets of Judaism?

Eric wrote:

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Well, let's look at that question. One normally does not use the word "Gentile" to refer to a Muslim or more appropriately in this context an Arab. Muslims and Arabs are Semitic.
I believe that Noah is "of our nation" because Noah believed in HaShem and only in HaShem. He was not a "Jew" because that concept had not been identified yet. But he was not a "Goy" either.
Now, what was Mohammed before his revelation? I believe he was a pagan. Therefore, unlike Noah, he was not "of our nation". I guess he was a "Goy" then, even though the word normally isn't applied in that manner. If his ancestors were once "of our nation", I am not sure. But, if they were, Mohammed's family had long since given up his "citizenship".

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HughBe wrote:

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"Well, let's look at that question. One normally does not use the word "Gentile" to refer to a Muslim or more appropriately in this context an Arab. Muslims and Arabs are Semitic."
Compare your statement above with extract from a Jewish site below.
"The most commonly used word for a non-Jew is goy. The word "goy" means "nation," and refers to the fact that goyim are members of other nations, that is, nations other than the Children of Israel." http://www.jewfaq.org/gentiles.htm
"that is, nations other than the Children of Israel."

Eric wrote:

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You forget that the definition you cite begins with "most commonly".
Please note the word is used in the Tanakh from the earliest times preceeding Jacob. Therefore, there were "goyim" prior to the time that there were Israelites.

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HughBe wrote:

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You forget that the definition you cite begins with "most commonly".
No, I have not forgotten.“most commonly” means that it is the most used word but that there are other words that are used to describe gentiles.This fact does not change the point that I made.
”Please note the word is used in the Tanakh from the earliest times preceeding Jacob. Therefore, there were "goyim" prior to the time that there were Israelites.”
Agree, because like Noah they were not Israelites. It is said that “G-d gave Noah and his family seven commandments to observe when he saved them from the flood.” i.e. 1) to establish courts of justice; 2) not to commit blasphemy; 3) not to commit idolatry; 4) not to commit incest and adultery; 5) not to commit bloodshed; 6) not to commit robbery; and 7) not to eat flesh cut from a living animal.”
For emphasis "G-d gave Noah and his family seven commandments"
None of these commandments say that Noah could not eat the flesh of unclean animals. And as I said by implication and otherwise, it is not credible, it is not reasonable, it is not rational to think that Noah would eat unclean flesh given that he knew the difference between clean and unclean flesh.
And also because it is UNTHINKABLE and ILLOGICAL to believe that the Eternal would allow or say to Noah you may eat unclean flesh but only offer or sacrifice CLEAN animals to Me. This is not the God I know.

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HughBe wrote:

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You forget that the definition you cite begins with "most commonly".
No, I have not forgotten.“most commonly” means that it is the most used word but that there are other words that are used to describe gentiles.This fact does not change the point that I made.
”Please note the word is used in the Tanakh from the earliest times preceeding Jacob. Therefore, there were "goyim" prior to the time that there were Israelites.”
Agree, because like Noah they were not Israelites. It is said that “G-d gave Noah and his family seven commandments to observe when he saved them from the flood.” i.e. 1) to establish courts of justice; 2) not to commit blasphemy; 3) not to commit idolatry; 4) not to commit incest and adultery; 5) not to commit bloodshed; 6) not to commit robbery; and 7) not to eat flesh cut from a living animal.”
For emphasis "G-d gave Noah and his family seven commandments"
None of these commandments say that Noah could not eat the flesh of unclean animals. And as I said by implication and otherwise, it is not credible, it is not reasonable, it is not rational to think that Noah would eat unclean flesh given that he knew the difference between clean and unclean flesh.
And also because it is UNTHINKABLE and ILLOGICAL to believe that the Eternal would allow or say to Noah you may eat unclean flesh but only offer or sacrifice CLEAN animals to Me. This is not the God I know.